NTS Physics MCQs Online With Answers

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NTS Physics MCQs With Answers Online Solved

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1. The SI standard of time is based on:
A. the daily rotation of the earth
B. the frequency of light emitted by Kr86
C. the yearly revolution of the earth about the sun
D. none of these

2. A nanosecond is:
A. 109 s
B. 10−9 s
C. 10−10 s
D. 10−10 s

3. The SI standard of length is based on:
A. the distance from the north pole to the equator along a meridian passing through Paris
B. wavelength of light emitted by Hg198
C. wavelength of light emitted by Kr86
D. the speed of light

4. In 1866, the U. S. Congress defined the U. S. yard as exactly 3600/3937 international meter. This was done primarily because:
A. length can be measured more accurately in meters than in yards
B. the meter is more stable than the yard
C. this definition relates the common U. S. length units to a more widely used system
D. there are more wavelengths in a yard than in a meter

5. Which of the following is closest to a yard in length?
A. 0.01 m
B. 0.1 m
C. 1 m
D. 100 m

6. There is no SI base unit for the area because:
A. an area has no thickness; hence no physical standard can be built
B. we live in a three (not a two) dimensional world
C. it is impossible to express square feet in terms of meters
D. area can be expressed in terms of square meters

7. The SI base unit for mass is:
A. gram
B. pound
C. kilogram
D. ounce

8. A gram is:
A. 10−6 kg
B. 10−3 kg
C. 1 kg
D. 103 kg

9. Which of the following weighs about a pound?
A. 0.05 kg
B. 0.5 kg
C. 5 kg
D. 50 kg

10. (5.0 × 104) × (3.0 × 106) =
A. 1.5 × 109
B. 1.5 × 1010
C. 1.5 × 1011
D. 1.5 × 1012

11. (5.0 × 104) × (3.0 × 10−6) =
A. 1.5 × 10−3
B. 1.5 × 10−1
C. 1.5 × 101
D. 1.5 × 103

12. 5.0 × 105 + 3.0 × 106 =
A. 8.0 × 105
B. 8.0 × 106
C. 5.3 × 105
D. 3.5 × 106

13. (7.0 × 106)/(2.0 × 10−6) =
A. 3.5 × 10−12
B. 3.5 × 10−6
C. 3.5
D. 3.5 × 1012

14. The number of significant figures in 0.00150 is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

15. The number of significant figures in 15.0 is:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

16. 3.2 × 2.7 =
A. 9
B. 8
C. 8.6
D. 8.64

17. 1.513 + 27.3 =
A. 29
B. 28.8
C. 28.9
D. 28.81

18. 1 mi is equivalent to 1609 m so 55 mph is:
A. 15 m/s
B. 25 m/s
C. 66 m/s
D. 88 m/s

19. A sphere with a radius of 1.7 cm has a volume of:
A. 2.1 × 10−5 m3
B. 9.1 × 10−4 m3
C. 3.6 × 10−3 m3
D. 0.11 m3

20. A sphere with a radius of 1.7 cm has a surface area of:
A. 2.1 × 10−5 m2
B. 9.1 × 10−4 m2
C. 3.6 × 10−3 m2
D. 0.11 m2

21. A right circular cylinder with a radius of 2.3 cm and a height of 1.4 m has a volume of:
A. 0.20 m3
B. 0.14 m3
C. 9.3 × 10−3 m3
D. 2.3 × 10−3 m3

22. A right circular cylinder with a radius of 2.3 cm and a height of 1.4 cm has a total surface area
of:
A. 1.7 × 10−3 m2
B. 3.2 × 10−3 m2
C. 2.0 × 10−3 m3
D. 5.3 × 10−3 m2

23. A cubic box with an edge of exactly 1 cm has a volume of:
A. 10−9 m3
B. 10−6 m3
C. 10−3 m3
D. 103 m3

24. A square with an edge of exactly 1 cm has an area of:
A. 10−6 m2
B. 10−4 m2
C. 102 m2
D. 104 m2

25. 1 m is equivalent to 3.281 ft. A cube with an edge of 1.5 ft has a volume of:
A. 1.2 × 102 m3
B. 9.6 × 10−2 m3
C. 10.5 m3
D. 9.5 × 10−2 m3

26. During a short interval of time the speed v in m/s of an automobile is given by v = at2 + bt3,
where the time t is in seconds. The units of a and b are respectively:
A. m • s2; m • s4
B. s3/m; s4/m
C. m/s2; m/s3
D. m/s3; m/s4

27. Suppose A = BC, where A has the dimension L/M and C has the dimension L/T. Then B
has the dimension:
A. T/M
B. L2/TM
C. TM/L2
D. L2T/M

28. Air bubble in water shines because of the phenomenon of
A. Dispersion
B. Refraction
C. Diffraction
D. Total internal reflection

29. Sun and the other stars are virtuously huge nuclear explosion chambers producing a large amount of heat and light yet, we do not hear any of the explosions because
A. Heat and light are electromagnetic
B. Sound waves get attenuated completely before they reach the earth
C. the process involved in the interior of the sun and the stars relates to atomic and subatomic particles and not molecules and their vibration
D. the outer space is an absolute vacuum

30. The advantage of AC over DC is that
A. it contains more electrical energy
B. it is free from voltage fluctuation
C. its generation coats much less
D. it can be transmitted over long distances with minimum power loss

31. What minimum escape velocity—the speed necessary to counter earth’s gravity and to break away from earth into outer—is space required from a rocket to be launched into space?
A. 5 km per second
B. 6 km per second
C.11 km per second
D.20 km per second

32. Which of the following device is used to step down the voltage of alternating current?
A. induction cool
B. Transformers
C. Transistor
D. Rectifier

33. The spherical shape of a small drop of rain is due to
A. Viscosity
B. Surface tension
C. atmospheric pressure
D. gravity

34. The blue color of the sky can be attributed to
A. differential scattering of the sunlight by the atmosphere
B. Total internal reflection of the sunlight by the atmosphere
C. Absorption of sunlight
D. Refraction of sunlight by the atmosphere

35. Which one of the following sets of properties is relevant for an electrical fuse wire needed for the normal application?
A. Thick wire, high melting point alloy, short length
B. thick wire, low melting point alloy, large length
C. Short length, low melting point alloy, thin wire
D. Large length, low melting point alloy, thin wire

36. Ice floats on water because the density of Ice is less than that of water, Out of the following what part of giant icebergs remains above water?
A. 1/10
B. 1/4
C. 1/2
D. ¾

37. Which one of the following coolers has the longest wavelength?
A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Red

38. Which one of the following can be used to focus sunlight?
A. Plan mirror
B. Concave lens
C. Concave mirror
D. Convex mirror

39. Which one of the following is a good conductor of electricity?
A. PVC
B. Glass
C. Rubber
D. Graphite

40. The tendency of a liquid drop to contract and occupy a minimum area is due to
A. Surface tension
B. Viscosity
C. Density
D. Vapour pressure

41. Choke coil is a coil of
A. High resistance and high inductance
B. Low resistance and high inductance
C.High resistance and low inductance
D. Low resistance and low inductance

42. Conductors, isolators and semi-conductors differ from each other due to property of
A. ability of the current to carry
B. formation of the crystal lattice
C. binding energy of their electrons
D. mutual width of their energy gaps

43. On which principle does the tape- recorder function?
A. Electromagnetic Induction
B. Electrovalency
C. Gye music’s law of combining volume
D. Boyle’s Law

44. When a constant force is applied to a body it moves with uniform
A. Momentum
B. Velocity
C. Speed
D. Acceleration

45. The silvered surface of the thermos flask prevents the transfer of heat by
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Reflection
D. Radiation

46. When the wind blows at high-velocity rooftops are blown off because of pressure
A. Outside is more than inside the roof
B. inside is more than outside the roof
C. Increases due to wind velocity
D. Is exerted by air from outside

47. Tube light works on the principle of
A. Chemical effect of current
B. Heating effect of current
C. Magnetic effect of current
D. Discharge of electricity through gases

48. in a refrigerator, cooling is produced by
A. The Ice is deposited on the freezer
B. The evaporation of a volatile liquid
C. The sudden expansion of a compressed gas
D. Increases stability

49. On earth a removed from an electric bulb was to prevent
A. Oxidation of tungsten filament
B. Bursting of bulb
C. Loss of light due to absorption
D.None of the above

50. A person climbing a hill bends forward in order to
A. Avoid slipping
B. Increases speed
C. Reduce fatigue
D. Increases stability

51. On earth a moving body ordinarily comes to rest by itself because of the
A. Law of inertia
B. Forces of friction
C. Conservation of momentum
D. Gravity

52. When the door of an operating refrigerator has opened the temperature of the room will
A. Decreases
B. Remain unchanged
C. Fall down immediately
D. increases

53. An electric motor is used to convert
A. Electrical energy into mechanical energy
B. Mechanical energy into kinetic energy
C. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
D. Higher voltage to lower voltage

54. Two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction attract each other because official
A. Potential difference between them
B. Mutual inductance between them
C. Electric forces between them
D. Magnetic forces between them

55. Energy of a body due to its motion is called
A. Heat energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. potential energy
D. Light energy

56. A moving ball stops due to the action of
A. Nuclear forces
B. frictional forces
C. Electric forces
D. Magnetic forces

57. The energy stored in a stretched spring is
A. Potential energy
B. kinetic energy
C. heat energy
D. Electrical energy

58. In cells chemical energy is transformed into
A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. heat energy
D. Electrical energy

59. When the body is dropped from a certain height, the gravitational potential energy is converted into
A. Elastic potential energy
B. chemical energy
C. kinetic energy
D. Light energy

60. Human body converts the chemical potential energy of food into
A. kinetic energy
B. Light energy
C. Nuclear energy
D. heat energy

61. Electrochemical energy is required for the working of
A. Circulatory system
B. Nervous system
C. Excretory system
D. Digestive system

62. When cat laps for its prey the chemical energy present in its muscles are converted to
A. potential energy then light energy
B. potential energy then to kinetic energy
C.Electrical energy then to heat energy
D. Heat energy then to nuclear energy

63. The energy stored in the fossil fuel is
A. chemical energy
B. heat energy
C. Electrical energy
D. Elastic potential energy

64. Semi-conductor is such a substance, whose ability to conduct current lies in between
A. conductors and insulators
B. conductors and superconductors
C. insulators and superconductors
D. Wood and plastic

65. Though the temperature inside a lighted electric bulb is around 2700C, the filament does not burn because:
A. The metal of which it is made is resistant to burning
B. the oxygen necessary for combustion (and bumming) is not available as the bulb is evacuated and filled with pure nitrogen or inert gases
C. it does not burn in closed systems
D. it is made of non-metallic substance

66. Celsius is the unit of _______.
A. equivalent to centigrade
B. Heat
C. equivalent to kelvin
D. equivalent ot Fahrenheit

67. Absolute Zero may be regarded as the temperature at which _______.
A. Gases become liquid
B. Molecular Motion in gas would cease
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above.

68. The Thermometer used to measure a 2000 Degree Centigrade or more is _______.
A. total radiation pyrometer
B. Mercury thermometer
C. Gas thermometer
D. None of the Above.

69. A clinical thermometer is usually shorter than a laboratory thermometer because ________.
A. It is marked in Fahrenheit, not in centigrade
B. only a limited range of temperature is required
C. Due to its length it will be difficult to hold in the mouth
D. None of the Above.

70. Which one is not correctly matched _____.
A. Humidity-Calorimeter
B. Temperature-Thermometer
C. Milk-Lactometer
D. all of the above.

71. The temperature and pressure at which ice, water, and steam coexist ______.
A. null point state
B. triple point
C. Both A & B
D. None of the Above

72. Device which is used to measure the temperature of the Sun is _______.
A. Gas Thermometer
B. Pyrometer
C. Platinum Thermometer
D. all of the above.

73. If the temperature of the patient on the Fahrenheit scale is 40 Degrees Centigrade, what will be his temperature on Fahrenheit Scale _______.
A. 96 Degree Centigrade
B. 98 Degree Centigrade
C. 104 Degree Centigrade
D. 106 Degree Centigrade

74. Two Thermometers one on a Fahrenheit scale and the other on a Centigrade scale are used to measure the temperature of the same object if the reading is Degrees Centigrade and Fahrenheit then ____.
A. F = C
B. C > F
C. F> C
D. F < >= C

75. At Absolute Zero all Gases ______.
A. Water Freezes
B. Water Boils
C. Both A & B
D. All gases liquify.

76. Lorentz force is the sum of:
A. Gravitational and centripetal force
B. Electric and magnetic force
C. Magnetic and nuclear force
D. Electrical and nuclear force

77. The areas under the hysteresis loop are proportional to
A. Magnetic energy density
B. Thermal energy per unit volume
C. Electric energy per unit volume
D. Mechanical energy per unit volume

78. The frequency of A.C is measured using:
A. Multimeter
B. avometer
C. tachometer
D. speedometer

79. Del. E = rho/epsilon not is called
A. gauss’s law
B. faraday’s law
C. ampere’s law
D. biot savant’s law

80. For the computation of the rate at which the dipole radiates energy, the interaction of the normal component of __________ is done over the sphere of radius R.
A. electric field
B. pointing vector
C. addition vector
D. radiation

81. Semiconductor materials have _____ bonds.
A. Ionic
B. covalent
C. mutual
D. metallic

82. The depletion region of a PN junction is formed:
A. During the manufacturing process
B. When a forward bias is applied to it
C. Under reverse bias
D. When its temperature is reduced

83. The current amplification factor DC is given by:
A. Ic/ie
B. Ic/Ib
C. Ib/Ie
D. Ib/Ic

84. In amplitude modulation
A. Carrier frequency is changed
B. Carrier amplitude is changed
C. Three sidebands are produced
D. Fidelity is improved

85. Demodulation
A. Is performed at the transmitting station
B. Removes side bands
C. Rectifies modulation signal
D. Is the opposite of modulation

86. Which of the following x-ray lines will have the largest frequency in a given element
A. K alpha
B. K beta
C. L gamma
D. it depends on the element

87. Which of these statements is a consequence of Planck’s derivation of a radiation law?
A. Atomic oscillator can emit and absorb energy at discrete values only
B. atomic oscillator can emit and absorb energy at discrete frequencies only
C. Both A & B
D. None of these

88. The Zeeman effect without the spin of the electron is called_____ Zeeman effect
A. anomalous
B. normal
C. Paschen
D. None of these

89. Zero point energy of harmonic oscillator is
A. hw
B. hw/2
C. zero
D. hw2

90. According to Pauli exclusion principle for two identical fermions the total __ is antisymmetric
A. Matrix
B. wave function
C. operator
D. tensor

91. The decay rate of radioactivity is measured in units of
A. curies
B. roentgens
C. rads
D. rems

92. Why are fission fragments usually radioactive?
A. They come originally from radioactive U235
B. They have a large neutron excess
C. They have a large binding energy per nucleon
D. They are moving at high speed

93. In a nuclear reactor, the function of the moderator is
A. To absorb neutrons
B. To keep the reactor from going critical
C. To slow down the neutrons
D. To absorb heat from the core

94. What is the main difficulty associated with the fusion process as a source of electrical power
A. The scarcity of fuel
B. The coulomb barrier
C. The radioactivity of the products
D. The danger of an explosion

95. Binding energy of a deuteron is
A. 2.22 Mev
B. 2.8Mev
C. 2.3Mev
D. none of these

96. If A= 6i-8j, then 4A has the magnitude:
A. 40
B. 10
C. 20
D. None of these

97. Let A= 2i+6j-3k and B= 4i+2j+k then A.B equals:
A. 8i+12j-3k
B. 17
C. 23
D. None of these

98. If V is an operator, then V.V means:
A. Gradient of a Scalar field
B. Curl of a vector field
C. Divergence of a Vector field
D. None of these

99. The volume of a parallelepiped bounded by Vectors A, B and C can be obtained from the
expression:
A. ( A x B ). C
B. (A.B) x C
C. ( A x B ) x C
D. None of these

100. A force acting on a particle is conservative if:
A. It obeys Newton’s third law
B. It obeys Newton’s second law
C. It works equals the change in Kinetic energy
D. None of these

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