NTS Physics MCQs Online With Answers

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NTS Physics MCQs With Answers Online Solved

NTS Physics MCQs Online

NTS Physics MCQs Online Test: Start Here

1. The SI standard of time is based on:
A. the daily rotation of the earth
B. the frequency of light emitted by Kr86
C. the yearly revolution of the earth about the sun
D. none of these

View Answer
Answer: Option D

2. A nanosecond is:
A. 109 s
B. 10−9 s
C. 10−10 s
D. 10−10 s
View Answer
Answer: Option B

3. The SI standard of length is based on:
A. the distance from the north pole to the equator along a meridian passing through Paris
B. wavelength of light emitted by Hg198
C. wavelength of light emitted by Kr86
D. the speed of light
View Answer
Answer: Option D

4. In 1866, the U. S. Congress defined the U. S. yard as exactly 3600/3937 international meter. This was done primarily because:
A. length can be measured more accurately in meters than in yards
B. the meter is more stable than the yard
C. this definition relates the common U. S. length units to a more widely used system
D. there are more wavelengths in a yard than in a meter
View Answer
Answer: Option C

5. Which of the following is closest to a yard in length?
A. 0.01 m
B. 0.1 m
C. 1 m
D. 100 m
View Answer
Answer: Option C

6. There is no SI base unit for the area because:
A. an area has no thickness; hence no physical standard can be built
B. we live in a three (not a two) dimensional world
C. it is impossible to express square feet in terms of meters
D. area can be expressed in terms of square meters
View Answer
Answer: Option D

7. The SI base unit for mass is:
A. gram
B. pound
C. kilogram
D. ounce
View Answer
Answer: Option C

8. A gram is:
A. 10−6 kg
B. 10−3 kg
C. 1 kg
D. 103 kg
View Answer
Answer: Option B

9. Which of the following weighs about a pound?
A. 0.05 kg
B. 0.5 kg
C. 5 kg
D. 50 kg
View Answer
Answer: Option D

10. (5.0 × 104) × (3.0 × 106) =
A. 1.5 × 109
B. 1.5 × 1010
C. 1.5 × 1011
D. 1.5 × 1012
View Answer
Answer: Option C

11. (5.0 × 104) × (3.0 × 10−6) =
A. 1.5 × 10−3
B. 1.5 × 10−1
C. 1.5 × 101
D. 1.5 × 103
View Answer
Answer: Option B

12. 5.0 × 105 + 3.0 × 106 =
A. 8.0 × 105
B. 8.0 × 106
C. 5.3 × 105
D. 3.5 × 106
View Answer
Answer: Option D

13. (7.0 × 106)/(2.0 × 10−6) =
A. 3.5 × 10−12
B. 3.5 × 10−6
C. 3.5
D. 3.5 × 1012
View Answer
Answer: Option D

14. The number of significant figures in 0.00150 is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
View Answer
Answer: Option B

15. The number of significant figures in 15.0 is:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
View Answer
Answer: Option C

16. 3.2 × 2.7 =
A. 9
B. 8
C. 8.6
D. 8.64
View Answer
Answer: Option C

17. 1.513 + 27.3 =
A. 29
B. 28.8
C. 28.9
D. 28.81

View Answer
Answer: Option B

18. 1 mi is equivalent to 1609 m so 55 mph is:
A. 15 m/s
B. 25 m/s
C. 66 m/s
D. 88 m/s

View Answer
Answer: Option B

19. A sphere with a radius of 1.7 cm has a volume of:
A. 2.1 × 10−5 m3
B. 9.1 × 10−4 m3
C. 3.6 × 10−3 m3
D. 0.11 m3
View Answer
Answer: Option A

20. A sphere with a radius of 1.7 cm has a surface area of:
A. 2.1 × 10−5 m2
B. 9.1 × 10−4 m2
C. 3.6 × 10−3 m2
D. 0.11 m2
View Answer
Answer: Option C

21. A right circular cylinder with a radius of 2.3 cm and a height of 1.4 m has a volume of:
A. 0.20 m3
B. 0.14 m3
C. 9.3 × 10−3 m3
D. 2.3 × 10−3 m3
View Answer
Answer: Option D

22. A right circular cylinder with a radius of 2.3 cm and a height of 1.4 cm has a total surface area
of:
A. 1.7 × 10−3 m2
B. 3.2 × 10−3 m2
C. 2.0 × 10−3 m3
D. 5.3 × 10−3 m2

View Answer
Answer: Option D

23. A cubic box with an edge of exactly 1 cm has a volume of:
A. 10−9 m3
B. 10−6 m3
C. 10−3 m3
D. 103 m3
View Answer
Answer: Option B

24. A square with an edge of exactly 1 cm has an area of:
A. 10−6 m2
B. 10−4 m2
C. 102 m2
D. 104 m2
View Answer
Answer: Option B

25. 1 m is equivalent to 3.281 ft. A cube with an edge of 1.5 ft has a volume of:
A. 1.2 × 102 m3
B. 9.6 × 10−2 m3
C. 10.5 m3
D. 9.5 × 10−2 m3

View Answer
Answer: Option B

26. During a short interval of time the speed v in m/s of an automobile is given by v = at2 + bt3,
where the time t is in seconds. The units of a and b are respectively:
A. m • s2; m • s4
B. s3/m; s4/m
C. m/s2; m/s3
D. m/s3; m/s4

View Answer
Answer: Option D

27. Suppose A = BC, where A has the dimension L/M and C has the dimension L/T. Then B
has the dimension:
A. T/M
B. L2/TM
C. TM/L2
D. L2T/M

View Answer
Answer: Option A

28. Air bubble in water shines because of the phenomenon of
A. Dispersion
B. Refraction
C. Diffraction
D. Total internal reflection
View Answer
Answer: Option D

29. Sun and the other stars are virtuously huge nuclear explosion chambers producing a large amount of heat and light yet, we do not hear any of the explosions because
A. Heat and light are electromagnetic
B. Sound waves get attenuated completely before they reach the earth
C. the process involved in the interior of the sun and the stars relates to atomic and subatomic particles and not molecules and their vibration
D. the outer space is an absolute vacuum

View Answer
Answer: Option D

30. The advantage of AC over DC is that
A. it contains more electrical energy
B. it is free from voltage fluctuation
C. its generation coats much less
D. it can be transmitted over long distances with minimum power loss

View Answer
Answer: Option D

31. What minimum escape velocity—the speed necessary to counter earth’s gravity and to break away from earth into outer—is space required from a rocket to be launched into space?
A. 5 km per second
B. 6 km per second
C.11 km per second
D.20 km per second

View Answer
Answer: Option C

32. Which of the following device is used to step down the voltage of alternating current?
A. induction cool
B. Transformers
C. Transistor
D. Rectifier

View Answer
Answer: Option B

33. The spherical shape of a small drop of rain is due to
A. Viscosity
B. Surface tension
C. atmospheric pressure
D. gravity

View Answer
Answer: Option B

34. The blue color of the sky can be attributed to
A. differential scattering of the sunlight by the atmosphere
B. Total internal reflection of the sunlight by the atmosphere
C. Absorption of sunlight
D. Refraction of sunlight by the atmosphere

View Answer
Answer: Option A

35. Which one of the following sets of properties is relevant for an electrical fuse wire needed for the normal application?
A. Thick wire, high melting point alloy, short length
B. thick wire, low melting point alloy, large length
C. Short length, low melting point alloy, thin wire
D. Large length, low melting point alloy, thin wire

View Answer
Answer: Option A

36. Ice floats on water because the density of Ice is less than that of water, Out of the following what part of giant icebergs remains above water?
A. 1/10
B. 1/4
C. 1/2
D. ¾

View Answer
Answer: Option B

37. Which one of the following coolers has the longest wavelength?
A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Red

View Answer
Answer: Option D

38. Which one of the following can be used to focus sunlight?
A. Plan mirror
B. Concave lens
C. Concave mirror
D. Convex mirror

View Answer
Answer: Option C

39. Which one of the following is a good conductor of electricity?
A. PVC
B. Glass
C. Rubber
D. Graphite

View Answer
Answer: Option D

40. The tendency of a liquid drop to contract and occupy a minimum area is due to
A. Surface tension
B. Viscosity
C. Density
D. Vapour pressure
View Answer
Answer: Option A

41. Choke coil is a coil of
A. High resistance and high inductance
B. Low resistance and high inductance
C.High resistance and low inductance
D. Low resistance and low inductance

View Answer
Answer: Option B

42. Conductors, isolators and semi-conductors differ from each other due to property of
A. ability of the current to carry
B. formation of the crystal lattice
C. binding energy of their electrons
D. mutual width of their energy gaps

View Answer
Answer: Option D

43. On which principle does the tape- recorder function?
A. Electromagnetic Induction
B. Electrovalency
C. Gye music’s law of combining volume
D. Boyle’s Law

View Answer
Answer: Option A

44. When a constant force is applied to a body it moves with uniform
A. Momentum
B. Velocity
C. Speed
D. Acceleration

View Answer
Answer: Option B

45. The silvered surface of the thermos flask prevents the transfer of heat by
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Reflection
D. Radiation

View Answer
Answer: Option D

46. When the wind blows at high-velocity rooftops are blown off because of pressure
A. Outside is more than inside the roof
B. inside is more than outside the roof
C. Increases due to wind velocity
D. Is exerted by air from outside

View Answer
Answer: Option B

47. Tube light works on the principle of
A. Chemical effect of current
B. Heating effect of current
C. Magnetic effect of current
D. Discharge of electricity through gases

View Answer
Answer: Option D

48. in a refrigerator, cooling is produced by
A. The Ice is deposited on the freezer
B. The evaporation of a volatile liquid
C. The sudden expansion of a compressed gas
D. Increases stability

View Answer
Answer: Option B

49. On earth a removed from an electric bulb was to prevent
A. Oxidation of tungsten filament
B. Bursting of bulb
C. Loss of light due to absorption
D.None of the above

View Answer
Answer: Option A

50. A person climbing a hill bends forward in order to
A. Avoid slipping
B. Increases speed
C. Reduce fatigue
D. Increases stability

View Answer
Answer: Option D

51. On earth a moving body ordinarily comes to rest by itself because of the
A. Law of inertia
B. Forces of friction
C. Conservation of momentum
D. Gravity

View Answer
Answer: Option B

52. When the door of an operating refrigerator has opened the temperature of the room will
A. Decreases
B. Remain unchanged
C. Fall down immediately
D. increases

View Answer
Answer: Option D

53. An electric motor is used to convert
A. Electrical energy into mechanical energy
B. Mechanical energy into kinetic energy
C. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
D. Higher voltage to lower voltage

View Answer
Answer: Option C

54. Two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction attract each other because official
A. Potential difference between them
B. Mutual inductance between them
C. Electric forces between them
D. Magnetic forces between them

View Answer
Answer: Option C

55. Energy of a body due to its motion is called
A. Heat energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. potential energy
D. Light energy

View Answer
Answer: Option B

56. A moving ball stops due to the action of
A. Nuclear forces
B. frictional forces
C. Electric forces
D. Magnetic forces

View Answer
Answer: Option B

57. The energy stored in a stretched spring is
A. Potential energy
B. kinetic energy
C. heat energy
D. Electrical energy

View Answer
Answer: Option D

58. In cells chemical energy is transformed into
A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. heat energy
D. Electrical energy

View Answer
Answer: Option D

59. When the body is dropped from a certain height, the gravitational potential energy is converted into
A. Elastic potential energy
B. chemical energy
C. kinetic energy
D. Light energy

View Answer
Answer: Option C

60. Human body converts the chemical potential energy of food into
A. kinetic energy
B. Light energy
C. Nuclear energy
D. heat energy

View Answer
Answer: Option D

61. Electrochemical energy is required for the working of
A. Circulatory system
B. Nervous system
C. Excretory system
D. Digestive system

View Answer
Answer: Option B

62. When cat laps for its prey the chemical energy present in its muscles are converted to
A. potential energy then light energy
B. potential energy then to kinetic energy
C.Electrical energy then to heat energy
D. Heat energy then to nuclear energy

View Answer
Answer: Option B

63. The energy stored in the fossil fuel is
A. chemical energy
B. heat energy
C. Electrical energy
D. Elastic potential energy

View Answer
Answer: Option A

64. Semi-conductor is such a substance, whose ability to conduct current lies in between
A. conductors and insulators
B. conductors and superconductors
C. insulators and superconductors
D. Wood and plastic

View Answer
Answer: Option A

65. Though the temperature inside a lighted electric bulb is around 2700C, the filament does not burn because:
A. The metal of which it is made is resistant to burning
B. the oxygen necessary for combustion (and bumming) is not available as the bulb is evacuated and filled with pure nitrogen or inert gases
C. it does not burn in closed systems
D. it is made of non-metallic substance

View Answer
Answer: Option B

66. Celsius is the unit of _______.
A. equivalent to centigrade
B. Heat
C. equivalent to kelvin
D. equivalent ot Fahrenheit
View Answer
Answer: Option A

67. Absolute Zero may be regarded as the temperature at which _______.
A. Gases become liquid
B. Molecular Motion in gas would cease
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above.
View Answer
Answer: Option B

68. The Thermometer used to measure a 2000 Degree Centigrade or more is _______.
A. total radiation pyrometer
B. Mercury thermometer
C. Gas thermometer
D. None of the Above.
View Answer
Answer: Option A

69. A clinical thermometer is usually shorter than a laboratory thermometer because ________.
A. It is marked in Fahrenheit, not in centigrade
B. only a limited range of temperature is required
C. Due to its length it will be difficult to hold in the mouth
D. None of the Above.
View Answer
Answer: Option B

70. Which one is not correctly matched _____.
A. Humidity-Calorimeter
B. Temperature-Thermometer
C. Milk-Lactometer
D. all of the above.
View Answer
Answer: Option A

71. The temperature and pressure at which ice, water, and steam coexist ______.
A. null point state
B. triple point
C. Both A & B
D. None of the Above
View Answer
Answer: Option B

72. Device which is used to measure the temperature of the Sun is _______.
A. Gas Thermometer
B. Pyrometer
C. Platinum Thermometer
D. all of the above.
View Answer
Answer: Option B

73. If the temperature of the patient on the Fahrenheit scale is 40 Degrees Centigrade, what will be his temperature on Fahrenheit Scale _______.
A. 96 Degree Centigrade
B. 98 Degree Centigrade
C. 104 Degree Centigrade
D. 106 Degree Centigrade
View Answer
Answer: Option C

74. Two Thermometers one on a Fahrenheit scale and the other on a Centigrade scale are used to measure the temperature of the same object if the reading is Degrees Centigrade and Fahrenheit then ____.
A. F = C
B. C > F
C. F> C
D. F < >= C
View Answer
Answer: Option D

75. At Absolute Zero all Gases ______.
A. Water Freezes
B. Water Boils
C. Both A & B
D. All gases liquify.
View Answer
Answer: Option D

76. Lorentz force is the sum of:
A. Gravitational and centripetal force
B. Electric and magnetic force
C. Magnetic and nuclear force
D. Electrical and nuclear force
View Answer
Answer: Option B

77. The areas under the hysteresis loop are proportional to
A. Magnetic energy density
B. Thermal energy per unit volume
C. Electric energy per unit volume
D. Mechanical energy per unit volume
View Answer
Answer: Option C

78. The frequency of A.C is measured using:
A. Multimeter
B. avometer
C. tachometer
D. speedometer
View Answer
Answer: Option C

79. Del. E = rho/epsilon not is called
A. gauss’s law
B. faraday’s law
C. ampere’s law
D. biot savant’s law
View Answer
Answer: Option A

80. For the computation of the rate at which the dipole radiates energy, the interaction of the normal component of __________ is done over the sphere of radius R.
A. electric field
B. pointing vector
C. addition vector
D. radiation
View Answer
Answer: Option A

81. Semiconductor materials have _____ bonds.
A. Ionic
B. covalent
C. mutual
D. metallic
View Answer
Answer: Option B

82. The depletion region of a PN junction is formed:
A. During the manufacturing process
B. When a forward bias is applied to it
C. Under reverse bias
D. When its temperature is reduced
View Answer
Answer: Option B

83. The current amplification factor DC is given by:
A. Ic/ie
B. Ic/Ib
C. Ib/Ie
D. Ib/Ic
View Answer
Answer: Option A

84. In amplitude modulation
A. Carrier frequency is changed
B. Carrier amplitude is changed
C. Three sidebands are produced
D. Fidelity is improved
View Answer
Answer: Option B

85. Demodulation
A. Is performed at the transmitting station
B. Removes side bands
C. Rectifies modulation signal
D. Is the opposite of modulation
View Answer
Answer: Option D

86. Which of the following x-ray lines will have the largest frequency in a given element
A. K alpha
B. K beta
C. L gamma
D. it depends on the element
View Answer
Answer: Option B

87. Which of these statements is a consequence of Planck’s derivation of a radiation law?
A. Atomic oscillator can emit and absorb energy at discrete values only
B. atomic oscillator can emit and absorb energy at discrete frequencies only
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
View Answer
Answer: Option B

88. The Zeeman effect without the spin of the electron is called_____ Zeeman effect
A. anomalous
B. normal
C. Paschen
D. None of these
View Answer
Answer: Option A

89. Zero point energy of harmonic oscillator is
A. hw
B. hw/2
C. zero
D. hw2
View Answer
Answer: Option B

90. According to Pauli exclusion principle for two identical fermions the total __ is antisymmetric
A. Matrix
B. wave function
C. operator
D. tensor
View Answer
Answer: Option B

91. The decay rate of radioactivity is measured in units of
A. curies
B. roentgens
C. rads
D. rems
View Answer
Answer: Option C

92. Why are fission fragments usually radioactive?
A. They come originally from radioactive U235
B. They have a large neutron excess
C. They have a large binding energy per nucleon
D. They are moving at high speed
View Answer
Answer: Option C

93. In a nuclear reactor, the function of the moderator is
A. To absorb neutrons
B. To keep the reactor from going critical
C. To slow down the neutrons
D. To absorb heat from the core
View Answer
Answer: Option C

94. What is the main difficulty associated with the fusion process as a source of electrical power
A. The scarcity of fuel
B. The coulomb barrier
C. The radioactivity of the products
D. The danger of an explosion
View Answer
Answer: Option B

95. Binding energy of a deuteron is
A. 2.22 Mev
B. 2.8Mev
C. 2.3Mev
D. none of these
View Answer
Answer: Option A

96. If A= 6i-8j, then 4A has the magnitude:
A. 40
B. 10
C. 20
D. None of these
View Answer
Answer: Option A

97. Let A= 2i+6j-3k and B= 4i+2j+k then A.B equals:
A. 8i+12j-3k
B. 17
C. 23
D. None of these
View Answer
Answer: Option B

98. If V is an operator, then V.V means:
A. Gradient of a Scalar field
B. Curl of a vector field
C. Divergence of a Vector field
D. None of these
View Answer
Answer: Option D

99. The volume of a parallelepiped bounded by Vectors A, B and C can be obtained from the
expression:
A. ( A x B ). C
B. (A.B) x C
C. ( A x B ) x C
D. None of these
View Answer
Answer: Option A

100. A force acting on a particle is conservative if:
A. It obeys Newton’s third law
B. It obeys Newton’s second law
C. It works equals the change in Kinetic energy
D. None of these

View Answer
Answer: Option D

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Waqas Ali

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